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CIE A-Level Physics 9702 Paper 1 Practice Paper (Multiple Choice) – 40 questions, 40 marks, 1 h 15 min, with answers and explanations

CIE A-Level Physics 9702 Paper 1 Practice Paper (Multiple Choice) – 40 questions, 40 marks, 1 h 15 min, with answers and explanations

  • 2026-10-30

TutorZone original practice paper – CIE A-Level Physics 9702 Paper 1 (Multiple Choice)

40 multiple-choice questions – 40 marks – 1 hour 15 minutes – calculator allowed

Total 40 marks · 1 h 15 min · 40 questions
Topic distribution Mechanics 14 · Materials 5 · Waves 9 · Electricity 8 · Particles 4
Level AS (first year of A-Level)

Paper comparison

Paper Time Marks Role
Paper 1 (multiple choice) 1 h 15 min 40 this paper
Paper 2 (AS structured) 1 h 15 min 60 AS paper
Paper 3 (AS practical skills) 2 hours 40 AS paper
Paper 4 (A Level structured) 2 hours 100 other A Level paper
Paper 5 (planning, analysis and evaluation) 1 h 15 min 30 other A Level paper

Data and formulae

Quantity Value
Acceleration of free fall g 9.81 m s-2
Elementary charge e 1.60 x 10-19 C
Speed of light c 3.00 x 108 m s-1
Density of water 1,000 kg m-3
Speed of sound in air at 20 C 340 m s-1
Electron mass 9.11 x 10-31 kg

Questions

Total: 40 marks · 1 h 15 min · calculator allowed · choose one option per question

1. Which of the following is the same unit as the joule? [1]

(A) kg m² s⁻²
(B) kg m⁻¹ s⁻²
(C) kg m² s⁻³
(D) kg m s⁻²

2. A car accelerates uniformly from rest to 30 m s-1 in 6.0 s. What is its displacement? [1]

(A) 180 m
(B) 45 m
(C) 90 m
(D) 270 m

3. A ball is thrown vertically upwards at 20 m s-1 (g = 9.81 m s-2). Its maximum height above the hand is about [1]

(A) 2.04 m
(B) 10.2 m
(C) 20.4 m
(D) 40.8 m

4. A small ball is projected horizontally at 15 m s-1 from a height of 20 m (g = 9.81 m s-2). Its horizontal range is about [1]

(A) 60.6 m
(B) 30.3 m
(C) 15.2 m
(D) 45.4 m

5. A 2.0 kg object on a frictionless horizontal table is pushed by a resultant horizontal force of 8.0 N. Its acceleration is [1]

(A) 16 m s⁻²
(B) 8.0 m s⁻²
(C) 4.0 m s⁻²
(D) 2.0 m s⁻²

6. A 1,200 kg car travelling at 15 m s-1 hits a wall and stops in 0.40 s. The average force on the car is [1]

(A) 1.8 × 10⁴ N
(B) 1.8 × 10⁵ N
(C) 4.5 × 10³ N
(D) 4.5 × 10⁴ N

7. A 3.0 kg body moving at 4.0 m s-1 collides with a stationary 1.0 kg body and they stick together. The kinetic energy lost is [1]

(A) 6.0 J
(B) 0 J
(C) 12 J
(D) 3.0 J

8. A motor raises a 25 kg load through 8.0 m in 4.0 s at constant speed (g = 9.81 m s-2). Its useful output power is [1]

(A) 1,960 W
(B) 490 W
(C) 200 W
(D) 3,920 W

9. A motor takes 2.4 kW of electrical power and gives 1.8 kW of mechanical power. Its efficiency is [1]

(A) 80%
(B) 60%
(C) 25%
(D) 75%

10. A uniform metre rule is pivoted at the 30 cm mark. A 4.0 N weight hangs at the 0 cm end. What weight at the 100 cm end balances it? (weight of the rule ignored) [1]

(A) 2.4 N
(B) 1.7 N
(C) 1.0 N
(D) 3.4 N

11. A pair of equal and opposite parallel forces of 6.0 N are 0.25 m apart. The torque of this couple is [1]

(A) 1.5 N m
(B) 3.0 N m
(C) 24 N m
(D) 0.75 N m

12. A spring of spring constant 40 N m-1 is extended by 0.15 m. The elastic potential energy stored is [1]

(A) 6.0 J
(B) 0.45 J
(C) 0.90 J
(D) 0.225 J

13. A metal wire of diameter 0.40 mm carries a tension of 50 N. The stress in the wire is about [1]

(A) 8.0 × 10⁸ Pa
(B) 1.6 × 10⁹ Pa
(C) 2.0 × 10⁸ Pa
(D) 4.0 × 10⁸ Pa

14. The same wire is 2.0 m long and extends by 1.2 mm under that tension. Its Young modulus is about [1]

(A) 6.6 × 10¹¹ Pa
(B) 6.6 × 10⁸ Pa
(C) 1.3 × 10¹² Pa
(D) 3.3 × 10¹¹ Pa

15. A body of volume 0.20 m3 is fully immersed in water (density 1,000 kg m-3, g = 9.81 m s-2). The upthrust on it is [1]

(A) 800 N
(B) 1,960 N
(C) 1,600 N
(D) 19,600 N

16. The pressure due to the water at a depth of 2.5 m is about (density 1,000 kg m-3, g = 9.81 m s-2) [1]

(A) 2.5 × 10⁶ Pa
(B) 2.5 × 10⁴ Pa
(C) 2.5 × 10⁵ Pa
(D) 2.5 × 10³ Pa

17. A sound wave of frequency 512 Hz travels at 340 m s-1 in air. Its wavelength is [1]

(A) 1.5 m
(B) 1.7 × 10⁵ m
(C) 0.33 m
(D) 0.66 m

18. A transverse wave has period 0.20 s and wavelength 0.80 m. Its speed is [1]

(A) 16 m s⁻¹
(B) 8.0 m s⁻¹
(C) 2.0 m s⁻¹
(D) 4.0 m s⁻¹

19. Which of the following waves can be polarised? [1]

(A) Longitudinal waves such as sound
(B) Transverse waves such as light
(C) All mechanical waves
(D) Only radio waves

20. Light travels from air into glass of refractive index 1.50 at an angle of incidence of 30 degrees. The angle of refraction is about [1]

(A) 14.5°
(B) 48.6°
(C) 19.5°
(D) 30.0°

21. A medium has refractive index 1.50. Its critical angle with air is about [1]

(A) 56.3°
(B) 48.6°
(C) 30.0°
(D) 41.8°

22. Two coherent point sources emit waves of wavelength 0.60 m. At the second-order maximum the path difference is [1]

(A) 0.30 m
(B) 1.8 m
(C) 0.60 m
(D) 1.2 m

23. A string 1.2 m long is fixed at both ends. The wave speed is 240 m s-1. The frequency of its second harmonic (first overtone) is [1]

(A) 200 Hz
(B) 400 Hz
(C) 240 Hz
(D) 100 Hz

24. A diffraction grating has 500 lines per millimetre. Monochromatic light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally. The first-order diffraction angle is about [1]

(A) 30.0°
(B) 17.5°
(C) 36.9°
(D) 8.6°

25. Two waves of equal amplitude and frequency superpose in antiphase. The amplitude of the resultant is [1]

(A) Zero
(B) Twice the original amplitude
(C) Half the original amplitude
(D) The same as the original amplitude

26. A current of 2.0 A flows for 5.0 minutes. The number of electrons passing a section is about (e = 1.60 x 10-19 C) [1]

(A) 3.8 × 10¹⁸
(B) 6.0 × 10²¹
(C) 3.8 × 10²¹
(D) 3.8 × 10²⁰

27. A copper wire of cross-sectional area 1.0 mm2 carries 2.0 A. The free-electron number density is 8.5 x 1028 m-3. The drift velocity is about [1]

(A) 1.5 × 10⁻² m s⁻¹
(B) 1.5 × 10⁻⁴ m s⁻¹
(C) 1.5 × 10⁻⁵ m s⁻¹
(D) 1.5 × 10⁻³ m s⁻¹

28. A copper wire 2.0 m long has cross-sectional area 1.0 x 10-6 m2 and resistivity 1.7 x 10-8 ohm m. Its resistance is [1]

(A) 0.068 Ω
(B) 0.017 Ω
(C) 3.4 Ω
(D) 0.034 Ω

29. A 12 V supply of negligible internal resistance feeds 4.0 ohm in series with a parallel pair of 6.0 ohm and 3.0 ohm. The current in the 6.0 ohm resistor is [1]

(A) 2.0 A
(B) 0.67 A
(C) 1.3 A
(D) 3.0 A

30. An electric kettle rated 2.0 kW at 230 V. The resistance of its element is about [1]

(A) 13.2 Ω
(B) 115 Ω
(C) 26.5 Ω
(D) 53.0 Ω

31. A cell of e.m.f. 9.0 V and internal resistance 0.50 ohm is connected to a 4.0 ohm resistor. The terminal p.d. is [1]

(A) 8.0 V
(B) 8.5 V
(C) 7.0 V
(D) 9.0 V

32. A 12 V supply is connected across 2.0 kohm and 6.0 kohm in series. The p.d. across the 6.0 kohm resistor is [1]

(A) 6.0 V
(B) 3.0 V
(C) 9.0 V
(D) 12 V

33. Kirchhoff first law (the junction rule) follows from [1]

(A) conservation of energy
(B) conservation of resistance
(C) conservation of charge
(D) conservation of momentum

34. The quark composition of a proton is [1]

(A) udd
(B) uud
(C) uus
(D) uds

35. Which of the following particles is a lepton? [1]

(A) Proton
(B) Neutron
(C) Pion
(D) Neutrino

36. In beta-minus decay the quark change inside the nucleus is [1]

(A) down quark -> up quark
(B) up quark -> down quark
(C) up quark -> gluon
(D) down quark -> strange quark

37. A nucleus contains 6 protons and 8 neutrons. Its nucleon number A is [1]

(A) 6
(B) 14
(C) 8
(D) 22

38. A length is measured as 12.0 +/- 0.2 mm. Its percentage uncertainty is [1]

(A) 17%
(B) 1.7%
(C) 0.2%
(D) 2.0%

39. Which of the following is a scalar quantity? [1]

(A) Kinetic energy
(B) Velocity
(C) Acceleration
(D) Momentum

40. Repeating a measurement and averaging mainly reduces [1]

(A) all three equally
(B) random error
(C) systematic error
(D) zero error

Answers and explanations

Q Answer Reasoning marks
1 A J = N m = (kg m s-2)(m) = kg m2 s-2. 1
2 C a = 30/6.0 = 5.0 m s-2; s = 0.5 x 5.0 x 36 = 90 m. 1
3 C v2 = u2 – 2gh with v = 0 at the top, so h = u2/2g = 400/19.62 = 20.4 m. 1
4 B t = sqrt(2h/g) = 2.02 s; range = 15 x t = 30.3 m. 1
5 C a = F/m = 8.0/2.0 = 4.0 m s-2. 1
6 D F = change in p / time = (1,200 x 15)/0.40 = 4.5e+04 N. 1
7 A Momentum: 4.0v = 12 so v = 3.0 m s-1; loss = 0.5×3.0x16 – 0.5×4.0x3.02 = 6.0 J. 1
8 B P = mgh/t = 25 x 9.81 x 8.0/4.0 = 490 W. 1
9 D Efficiency = 1.8/2.4 x 100% = 75%. 1
10 B Moments: 4.0 x 0.30 = W x 0.70 so W = 1.71 N. 1
11 A Torque = F x d = 6.0 x 0.25 = 1.5 N m. 1
12 B E = 0.5kx2 = 0.5 x 40 x 0.15^2 = 0.45 J. 1
13 D A = pi r2 = pi(0.20 x 10-3)2 = 1.26e-07 m2; stress = 50/A = 4e+08 Pa. 1
14 A Strain = 1.2 x 10-3/2.0 = 6.0e-04; E = stress/strain = 6.6e+11 Pa. 1
15 B Upthrust = rho V g = 1,000 x 0.20 x 9.81 = 1962 N. 1
16 B p = rho g h = 1,000 x 9.81 x 2.5 = 24525 Pa, about 2.5 x 104 Pa. 1
17 D lambda = v/f = 340/512 = 0.66 m. 1
18 D f = 1/0.20 = 5.0 Hz; v = f lambda = 5.0 x 0.80 = 4.0 m s-1. 1
19 B Only transverse waves can be polarised, because their oscillations are perpendicular to the direction of travel and can be confined to one plane. 1
20 C n = sin i / sin r so sin r = sin 30 / 1.50 = 0.333 and r = 19.5 degrees. 1
21 D sin c = 1/n = 1/1.50 = 0.667 so c = 41.8 degrees. 1
22 D At the nth order maximum the path difference is n lambda; with n = 2 it is 2 x 0.60 = 1.2 m. 1
23 A For the second harmonic lambda = L = 1.2 m, so f = 240/1.2 = 200 Hz. 1
24 B d = 1/500 mm = 2.0 x 10-6 m; sin theta = lambda/d = 0.30 so theta = 17.5 degrees. 1
25 A With a phase difference of 180 degrees the waves cancel exactly (complete destructive superposition) and the resultant amplitude is zero. 1
26 C Q = It = 2.0 x 300 = 600 C; N = Q/e = 3.8e+21. 1
27 B I = nAve so v = 2.0/(8.5e28 x 1.0e-6 x 1.6e-19) = 0.00015 m s-1. 1
28 D R = rho L / A = (1.7e-8 x 2.0)/1.0e-6 = 0.034 ohm. 1
29 B Parallel pair = 2.0 ohm, total = 6.0 ohm, I = 2.0 A, p.d. across the pair = 4.0 V, so I in 6 ohm = 0.67 A. 1
30 C P = V2/R so R = 230^2/2,000 = 26.4 ohm. 1
31 A I = 9.0/4.50 = 2.0 A; terminal p.d. = I R = 2.0 x 4.0 = 8.0 V. 1
32 C Potential divider: V = 12 x 6.0/8.0 = 9.0 V. 1
33 C The junction rule states that the total current into a junction equals the total out, because charge does not accumulate there: conservation of charge. 1
34 B A proton is uud (charge +2/3 + 2/3 – 1/3 = +1); a neutron is udd. 1
35 D Leptons do not feel the strong force: the electron, muon and neutrinos are leptons, while protons, neutrons and pions are hadrons. 1
36 A In beta-minus decay d -> u + e- + antineutrino: a neutron (udd) becomes a proton (uud), emitting an electron and an antineutrino. 1
37 B A = protons + neutrons = 6 + 8 = 14 while the proton number Z = 6. 1
38 B Percentage uncertainty = 0.2/12.0 x 100% = 1.7%. 1
39 A A scalar has magnitude only: kinetic energy is a scalar, whereas velocity, acceleration and momentum are vectors. 1
40 B Averaging repeated readings cancels random scatter in both directions, but a systematic error such as a zero error must be removed by calibration. 1

Topic breakdown

Topic Questions Marks
Mechanics 14 14
Materials 5 5
Waves 9 9
Electricity 8 8
Particle physics 4 4

Common lost marks

  • Using g = 10 instead of 9.81, which pushes projectile and spring answers off the options.
  • Putting the diameter rather than the radius into pi r2, so the stress is four times too large.
  • Mixing up the parallel and series combinations before finding the current, so every branch current is wrong.
  • Using one arm instead of the distance between the two forces when finding the torque of a couple.
How to use this paper Sit the paper closed-book in 75 minutes, then check the reasoning for every question; redo each wrong calculation and note whether it was the formula, the substitution or the unit.
Syllabus reference Format follows the CIE 9702 Physics syllabus (2025-2027) Paper 1: 1 h 15 min, 40 multiple-choice questions, 40 marks, AS content.

Frequently asked

What is Paper 1 like?
Paper 1 is the AS multiple-choice paper: 40 questions, 40 marks, 1 hour 15 minutes, about 1 minute 50 seconds per question. There is one correct answer per question and no penalty for a wrong answer, so never leave a blank.

Should I use a calculator?
Yes. Most questions need a substitution, so write g = 9.81 and e = 1.60 x 10-19 in the margin first and check the unit of your answer before choosing an option; that removes about half of the careless errors.

How should I use the answer booklet?
Sit the paper closed-book in 1 hour 15 minutes, then go through the reasoning for every question. For each wrong answer, redo the calculation rather than just reading it, and note whether the formula, the substitution or the unit was wrong.

This paper is written by TutorZone tutors from the public syllabus; all questions and data are original and not endorsed by CIE.

The answer booklet gives worked reasoning for study use only; please credit the source when reusing.