IB Physics SL Paper 1A Multiple-Choice Practice Paper (2025 syllabus)
- 2026-10-29
IB Physics SL Paper 1A Multiple-Choice Practice Paper (2025 syllabus)
Course: IB DP Physics SL (first assessment 2025) | Paper 1A: multiple choice | Time: 49 minutes | Total: 30 marks | Questions: 30
All 30 questions, data and contexts are written by TutorZone. This is not an IB past paper or an official mark scheme, and it is not affiliated with the IBO.
Paper at a glance
| Paper | Time | Marks | Notes |
|---|---|---|---|
| Paper 1 (1A + 1B) | 1 h 30 min | 55 | 1A multiple choice 30 marks + 1B data-based 25 marks |
| This paper (1A only) | 49 min | 30 | 30 questions, 1 mark each |
The 49 minutes come from scaling the official 1 h 30 min Paper 1 by 30/55. Marks and timing follow the official Physics guide (first assessment 2025); this paper is written to the same assessment model.
Topic coverage
| Topic | Questions |
|---|---|
| Measurement and uncertainties | 2 |
| Mechanics and motion | 8 |
| Work, energy and power | 3 |
| Thermal physics and gases | 4 |
| Wave behaviour | 4 |
| Electricity | 4 |
| Circular motion and gravitation | 2 |
| Atomic and nuclear physics | 3 |
Questions
Question 1 (1 mark) – Measurement and uncertainties
A length is measured as 12.0 ± 0.2 cm. What is the percentage uncertainty? A 0.2% B 1.2% C 8.3% D 1.7% (1 mark)
Question 2 (1 mark) – Measurement and uncertainties
Mass 24.0 ± 0.2 g and volume 8.0 ± 0.1 cm³. What is the percentage uncertainty in the density? A 1.1% B 0.8% C 3.0% D 2.1% (1 mark)
Question 3 (1 mark) – Mechanics and motion
Two perpendicular forces of 3.0 N and 4.0 N act on a point. What is the magnitude of the resultant? A 7.0 N B 1.0 N C 12.0 N D 5.0 N (1 mark)
Question 4 (1 mark) – Mechanics and motion
A body moving at 4.0 m/s accelerates uniformly at 2.0 m/s² for 5.0 s. What is its final speed? A 20 m/s B 30 m/s C 10 m/s D 14 m/s (1 mark)
Question 5 (1 mark) – Mechanics and motion
A body falls from rest for 2.0 s (g = 9.81 m s⁻²). What is the distance fallen? A 39.2 m B 4.9 m C 9.8 m D 19.6 m (1 mark)
Question 6 (1 mark) – Mechanics and motion
A car travelling at 20 m/s brakes with a deceleration of 5.0 m/s². What is the stopping distance? A 10 m B 20 m C 40 m D 80 m (1 mark)
Question 7 (1 mark) – Mechanics and motion
A ball is thrown horizontally at 15 m/s from a height of 20 m (g = 9.81 m s⁻²). What is its horizontal range? A 40.0 m B 45.0 m C 15.0 m D 30.3 m (1 mark)
Question 8 (1 mark) – Mechanics and motion
A resultant force of 12 N acts on a 3.0 kg mass. What is the acceleration? A 4.0 m s⁻² B 15 m s⁻² C 36 m s⁻² D 0.25 m s⁻² (1 mark)
Question 9 (1 mark) – Mechanics and motion
A 20 kg box is pulled horizontally with 80 N; the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.30 (g = 9.81 m s⁻²). What is the acceleration? A 1.1 m s⁻² B 3.0 m s⁻² C 4.0 m s⁻² D 0.6 m s⁻² (1 mark)
Question 10 (1 mark) – Mechanics and motion
A 0.15 kg ball hits a wall at 20 m/s and rebounds along the same line at 15 m/s. What is the magnitude of its change in momentum? A 0.75 kg m s⁻¹ B 3.0 kg m s⁻¹ C 5.25 kg m s⁻¹ D 7.0 kg m s⁻¹ (1 mark)
Question 11 (1 mark) – Work, energy and power
A 1 200 kg car travels at 20 m/s. What is its kinetic energy? A 1.2 × 10⁴ J B 1.2 × 10⁵ J C 2.4 × 10⁵ J D 4.8 × 10⁵ J (1 mark)
Question 12 (1 mark) – Work, energy and power
A machine takes in 2 500 J and delivers 1 750 J of useful energy. What is its efficiency? A 30% B 43% C 70% D 143% (1 mark)
Question 13 (1 mark) – Work, energy and power
A 60 kg student climbs a 5.0 m staircase in 10 s (g = 9.81 m s⁻²). What is the average power? A 30 W B 59 W C 294 W D 2 940 W (1 mark)
Question 14 (1 mark) – Thermal physics and gases
0.50 kg of water is heated through 20 K (c = 4 180 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹). How much energy is absorbed? A 4.18 × 10³ J B 2.09 × 10⁴ J C 4.18 × 10⁴ J D 8.36 × 10⁴ J (1 mark)
Question 15 (1 mark) – Thermal physics and gases
0.20 kg of ice at 0 °C melts completely (specific latent heat 3.34 x 10⁵ J kg⁻¹). How much energy is needed? A 6.68 × 10⁴ J B 1.67 × 10⁵ J C 6.68 × 10⁵ J D 3.34 × 10⁴ J (1 mark)
Question 16 (1 mark) – Thermal physics and gases
What volume does 0.10 mol of an ideal gas occupy at 300 K and 1.0 x 10⁵ Pa (R = 8.31 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)? A 2.5 × 10⁻³ m³ B 2.5 × 10⁻² m³ C 1.2 × 10⁻² m³ D 2.5 × 10⁻⁴ m³ (1 mark)
Question 17 (1 mark) – Thermal physics and gases
A 0.10 kg metal sample at 100 °C is placed in 0.20 kg of water at 20 °C; the final temperature is 26 °C (no heat loss, c of water = 4 180 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹). What is the specific heat capacity of the metal? A 420 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹ B 680 J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹ C 1.4 × 10³ J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹ D 2.1 × 10³ J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹ (1 mark)
Question 18 (1 mark) – Wave behaviour
A sound wave has frequency 250 Hz and speed 340 m/s. What is its wavelength? A 0.74 m B 1.36 m C 2.72 m D 85 m (1 mark)
Question 19 (1 mark) – Wave behaviour
Light travels from air (n = 1.00) into water (n = 1.50) at an angle of incidence of 45°. What is the angle of refraction? A 28° B 30° C 42° D 45° (1 mark)
Question 20 (1 mark) – Wave behaviour
In a double-slit experiment the slit separation is 0.25 mm, the screen distance is 2.0 m and adjacent maxima are 4.0 mm apart. What is the wavelength? A 250 nm B 400 nm C 500 nm D 625 nm (1 mark)
Question 21 (1 mark) – Wave behaviour
A 1.2 m string is fixed at both ends and carries waves at 240 m/s. What is the fundamental frequency? A 50 Hz B 100 Hz C 200 Hz D 240 Hz (1 mark)
Question 22 (1 mark) – Electricity
A potential difference of 12 V is applied across a 4.0 Ω resistor. What is the current? A 0.33 A B 3.0 A C 8.0 A D 48 A (1 mark)
Question 23 (1 mark) – Electricity
A 6.0 Ω resistor and a 3.0 Ω resistor are connected in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance? A 1.5 Ω B 2.0 Ω C 4.5 Ω D 9.0 Ω (1 mark)
Question 24 (1 mark) – Electricity
An appliance draws 0.50 A from a 230 V supply. What is its power? A 60 W B 115 W C 230 W D 460 W (1 mark)
Question 25 (1 mark) – Electricity
A copper wire is 2.0 m long, of cross-sectional area 1.0 x 10⁻⁷ m² and resistivity 1.7 x 10⁻⁸ Ω m. What is its resistance? A 0.17 Ω B 0.34 Ω C 0.68 Ω D 3.4 Ω (1 mark)
Question 26 (1 mark) – Circular motion and gravitation
A body moves on a circle of radius 2.0 m at a speed of 6.0 m/s. What is its centripetal acceleration? A 3.0 m s⁻² B 12 m s⁻² C 18 m s⁻² D 36 m s⁻² (1 mark)
Question 27 (1 mark) – Circular motion and gravitation
A satellite orbits at a radius of 7.0 x 10⁶ m (GM = 3.99 x 10¹⁴ m³ s⁻²). What is its period? A 97 min B 60 min C 145 min D 24 h (1 mark)
Question 28 (1 mark) – Atomic and nuclear physics
What is the energy of a photon of frequency 5.0 x 10¹⁴ Hz (h = 6.63 x 10⁻³⁴ J s)? A 3.3 × 10⁻¹⁹ J B 1.5 × 10⁻¹⁹ J C 6.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ J D 3.3 × 10⁻¹⁵ J (1 mark)
Question 29 (1 mark) – Atomic and nuclear physics
A radioactive sample passes through 4 half-lives in 80 minutes. What fraction remains? A 6.25% B 12.5% C 25% D 50% (1 mark)
Question 30 (1 mark) – Atomic and nuclear physics
An electron (mass 9.11 x 10⁻³¹ kg) moves at 2.0 x 10⁶ m/s. What is its de Broglie wavelength (h = 6.63 x 10⁻³⁴ J s)? A 0.18 nm B 0.36 nm C 0.73 nm D 3.6 nm (1 mark)
Answers and marking notes
Question 1 D: 0.2 / 12.0 x 100% = 1.7%. [1 mark]
Question 2 D: Density = 24.0 / 8.0 = 3.0 g cm⁻³; percentage uncertainty = 0.2/24.0 + 0.1/8.0 = 0.83% + 1.25% = 2.1%. [1 mark]
Question 3 D: Resultant = √(3.0² + 4.0²) = 5.0 N. [1 mark]
Question 4 D: v = u + at = 4.0 + 2.0 x 5.0 = 14 m/s. [1 mark]
Question 5 D: s = ½at² = 0.5 x 9.81 x 4.0 = 19.6 m. [1 mark]
Question 6 C: s = u² / (2a) = 400 / 10 = 40 m. [1 mark]
Question 7 D: t = √(2h/g) = √(40 / 9.81) = 2.02 s; range = 15.0 x 2.02 = 30.3 m. [1 mark]
Question 8 A: a = F / m = 12 / 3.0 = 4.0 m s⁻². [1 mark]
Question 9 A: Friction = 0.30 x 20 x 9.81 = 58.9 N; net force = 80 – 58.9 = 21.1 N; a = 21.1 / 20 = 1.1 m s⁻². [1 mark]
Question 10 C: Δp = m(v – u) = 0.15 x (15 – (-20)) = 5.25 kg m s⁻¹; the reversal supplies the minus sign. [1 mark]
Question 11 C: Ek = ½mv² = 0.5 x 1 200 x 400 = 240 000 J = 2.4 x 10⁵ J. [1 mark]
Question 12 C: Efficiency = 1 750 / 2 500 x 100% = 70%. [1 mark]
Question 13 C: P = mgh / t = 60 x 9.81 x 5.0 / 10 = 294 W. [1 mark]
Question 14 C: Q = mcΔT = 0.50 x 4 180 x 20 = 41 800 J = 4.18 x 10⁴ J. [1 mark]
Question 15 A: Q = mL = 0.20 x 3.34 x 10⁵ = 66 800 J = 6.68 x 10⁴ J. [1 mark]
Question 16 A: V = nRT / p = 0.10 x 8.31 x 300 / 1.0 x 10⁵ = 2.49 x 10⁻³ m³ ≈ 2.5 x 10⁻³ m³. [1 mark]
Question 17 B: Heat gained by water = 0.20 x 4 180 x 6.0 = 5 016 J; heat lost by metal = 0.10 x c x 74; c = 5 016 / 7.4 = 678 ≈ 6.8 x 10² J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹. [1 mark]
Question 18 B: λ = v / f = 340 / 250 = 1.36 m. [1 mark]
Question 19 A: sin θ₂ = sin 45° / 1.50 = 0.471, so θ₂ = 28.1°. [1 mark]
Question 20 C: λ = ax / D = (0.25 x 10⁻³ x 4.0 x 10⁻³) / 2.0 = 5.0 x 10⁻⁷ m = 500 nm. [1 mark]
Question 21 B: At the fundamental, λ = 2L = 2.4 m, so f = v / λ = 240 / 2.4 = 100 Hz. [1 mark]
Question 22 B: I = V / R = 12 / 4.0 = 3.0 A. [1 mark]
Question 23 B: 1/R = 1/6.0 + 1/3.0 = 0.50 Ω⁻¹, so R = 2.0 Ω. [1 mark]
Question 24 B: P = VI = 230 x 0.50 = 115 W. [1 mark]
Question 25 B: R = ρL / A = 1.7 x 10⁻⁸ x 2.0 / 1.0 x 10⁻⁷ = 0.34 Ω. [1 mark]
Question 26 C: a = v² / r = 36 / 2.0 = 18 m s⁻². [1 mark]
Question 27 A: T = 2π√(r³ / GM) = 2π√(3.43 x 10²⁰ / 3.99 x 10¹⁴) = 5.83 x 10³ s ≈ 97 minutes. [1 mark]
Question 28 A: E = hf = 6.63 x 10⁻³⁴ x 5.0 x 10¹⁴ = 3.3 x 10⁻¹⁹ J. [1 mark]
Question 29 A: Remaining fraction = (1/2)⁴ = 1/16 = 6.25%. [1 mark]
Question 30 B: λ = h / (mv) = 6.63 x 10⁻³⁴ / (9.11 x 10⁻³¹ x 2.0 x 10⁶) = 3.6 x 10⁻¹⁰ m = 0.36 nm. [1 mark]
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